EssaysBay: February 2017

Tuesday, 28 February 2017

BUS 335 WEEK 11 QUIZ 10 CHAPTER 14

BUS 335 WEEK 11 QUIZ 10 CHAPTER 14

Follow below link to get this tutorial:

http://essaysbay.com/product/bus-335-week-11-quiz-10-chapter-14/

BUS 335 WEEK 11 QUIZ 10 CHAPTER 14

True / False Questions
1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover.
True False

2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment.
True False

3. An employee’s perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job.
True False

4. An employee’s overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee.
True False

5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs.
True False

6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover.
True False

7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job.
True False

8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches.
True False

9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed.
True False

10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
11. The types of employee turnover include ___________.
A. voluntary
B. discharge
C. downsizing
D. all of the above

12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________.
A. a site or plant closing
B. permanent layoff
C. poor employee performance
D. none of the above

13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______.
A. voluntary
B. involuntary
C. supplemental
D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing

14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________.
A. poor person/organization match
B. favorable labor market conditions
C. general, transferable KSAOs
D. none of the above

15. An employee’s intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________.
A. perceived desirability of movement
B. perceived ease of movement
C. alternatives available to the employee
D. all of the above

16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____.
A. employees are highly embedded
B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs
C. labor markets are loose
D. all of the above

17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________.
A. overstaffing
B. understaffing
C. an appropriate staffing level
D. none of the above

Analysis of Turnover
True / False Questions
18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations.
True False

19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys.
True False

20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy.
True False

21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee’s immediate supervisor whenever possible.
True False

22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization.
True False

23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee’s last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences.
True False

24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage.
True False

25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs.
True False

26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements.
True False

27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly.
True False

28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases.
True False

29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities.
True False

30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills.
True False

31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees.
A. rehiring rights
B. benefits
C. confidentiality agreements
D. all of the above

33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview?
A. The interviewer should be the employee’s immediate supervisor.
B. There should be an unstructured interview format.
C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee’s personnel file.
D. None of the above

34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?
A. Position analysis
B. Job rotation
C. Exit interview
D. Discharge notification

35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.
A. hiring inducements
B. rehiring costs
C. manager’s time
D. more than one of the above

36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________.
A. HR staff induction costs
B. mentoring
C. severance pay
D. contagion

37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?
A. lowered replacement costs
B. savings from not replacing an employee
C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed
D. all of the above

38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover?
A. Accrued paid time off
B. Possibility of a lawsuit
C. Staffing costs for a new hire
D. Formal training

39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________.
A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations
B. decreased employee morale
C. higher unemployment insurance premiums
D. difficulty in attracting new employees

40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing?
A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones
B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations
C. lower payroll and benefit costs
D. all of the above

Retention Initiatives: Voluntary Turnover
True / False Questions
41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services.
True False

42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees.
True False

43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors.
True False

44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors.
True False

45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects.
True False

46. Of the factors that influence an employee’s desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations.
True False

47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates.
True False

48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace.
True False

49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication.
True False

50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings.
True False

51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs.
True False

52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover.
True False

53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave.
True False

More Questions are Included…

BUS 335 WEEK 10 QUIZ 9 CHAPTER 13

BUS 335 WEEK 10 QUIZ 9 CHAPTER 13

Follow below link to get this tutorial:

http://essaysbay.com/product/bus-335-week-10-quiz-9-chapter-13-2/

SUPPORT@ESSAYSBAY.COM

BUS 335 WEEK 10 QUIZ 9 CHAPTER 13

True / False Questions
1. In organizations with fewer than 100 employees, research suggests that staffing is most likely to be conducted by the owner, president, or work unit manager.
True False

2. Centralization of the staffing function creates economies scale and consistency in staffing policies and processes across the organization.
True False

3. A study of HR departments in large organizations found that the focus on recruitment and selection activities had decreased significantly over the past several years.
True False

4. Those employed within the staffing function need to work with training and development staff regularly.
True False

5. Entry into staffing jobs normally occurs at the generalist rank in both private and public organizations.
True False

6. The fixed point or method of entry into staffing jobs is frequently the recruiting and interviewing function.
True False

7. Jobs in staffing are increasingly becoming more customer focused and facilitative in nature.
True False

8. Increasing numbers of staffing jobs are found in staffing firms.
True False

9. Lack of staffing policies and procedures may lead to practices that may foster negative applicant reactions and problems with legal compliance.
True False

10. The scope of staffing actions and practices is quite small and narrow.
True False

11. Decreasing numbers of staffing jobs are found in staffing firms.
True False

12. Perceived justice is related to concrete outcomes like employee desire to pursue a job, increased intentions to accept a job, and decreased intention to turnover.
True False

13. Most organizations with a sufficient number of employees to warrant a dedicated HR department have integrated the function with human resources information systems (HRISs).
True False

14. Although HRIS have increased data availability for human resources functions, they have done little to fundamentally affect the way staffing activities are evaluated.
True False

15. SaaS vendors provide the hardware, software, and day-to-day management of HRIS.
True False

16. A growing trend in HRIS is the centralization of these functions within the HR department to prevent managers from accessing the system.
True False

17. Surveys suggest that staffing is one of the first areas that organizations will outsource.
True False

18. HR representatives report that one of the key advantages of outsourcing is access to superior information from specialists.
True False

19. A professional employer organization (PEO) is like a temporary help agency, but provides a wider range of HR services and has a longer-term relationship with clients.
True False

20. Factors that are driving organizations to consider outsourcing HR activities include cost reduction, the cost of technology acquisition, need for improved service quality, and expertise of vendors.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. As organization size increases, the likelihood that there will be a highly centralized HR department _________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. stays about the same
D. none of the above

22. Staffing members must coordinate their activities with __________.
A. benefits staff
B. compensation staff
C. training and development staff
D. all of the above are true

23. Which of the following is true regarding jobs in staffing?
A. Entry into staffing jobs normally occurs at the generalist rank.
B. There is usually a fixed point of entry into staffing jobs.
C. Jobs in staffing are becoming increasingly customer focused and facilitative in nature.
D. Few are housed in the HR department.

24. Which of the following statements regarding staffing policies and procedures is true?
A. they seldom contribute to organizational efficiency
B. they help to ensure legal compliance
C. they often lead to negative applicant reactions
D. all of the above are true

25. Research suggests that organizational decision making is seen as most fair when it is based on _____.
A. social influence
B. clearly communicated decision criteria
C. processes tailored to each unique individual
D. all of the above

26. Human resources information systems have been used for which of the following functions?
A. EEO data analysis and reports
B. employee succession planning
C. databases of job titles and responsibilities
D. all of the above

27. An ASP or SaaS provider offers which of the following services?
A. techniques to prevent managers from accessing HR data
B. hardware and software for running HR systems
C. paper-based forms and data for the organization
D. all of the above

28. The contracting out of work to a vendor or third party administrator is called ____________.
A. outsourcing
B. temping
C. contracting
D. boundary spanning

29. Which of the following factors is most likely to be a reason not to outsource HR activities?
A. vendors have little expertise
B. vendors are less flexible to meet changing needs
C. vendors have few resources to offer
D. vendors meet resistance within HR and line management

30. Which of the following functions are most likely to be outsourced?
A. recruiting creative talent for an advertising agency
B. screening registered nurses for a long-term care facility
C. recruiting and selecting individuals for teams
D. providing employee orientation

31. For ______, it is better to keep staffing functions within the organization, rather than outsourcing.
A. small organizations
B. organizations with continual hiring needs
C. firm-specific human capital
D. general human capital

Evaluation of Staffing Systems
True / False Questions
32. The evaluation of staffing systems should focus on the operation of the staffing process, the results and costs of the process, and the satisfaction of the customers of the staffing system.
True False

33. Standardized staffing systems are more likely to generate legal challenges by job applicants.
True False

34. Standardization will probably decrease applicants’ perceptions of procedural fairness of a staffing system.
True False

35. Once a staffing process has been mapped out, the next step is to check for deviations from the system.
True False

36. Most of the processes involved in staffing are too subjective or difficult to quantify.
True False

37. Experienced managers who have used staffing system metrics often find that new staffing systems may not represent a significant improvement.
True False

38. It is typically not possible to use techniques like split-samples analysis or longitudinal analysis to evaluate the effectiveness of established processes.
True False

39. In recent years, a number of organizations have worked to develop standardized benchmarks for judging the effectiveness of staffing processes across organizations.
True False

40. Benchmark data on staffing policies are typically applicable across nearly every organization and should be used as a primary guide for selecting which practices to implement.
True False

41. The formula for the staffing cost ratio is total staffing cost ratio = total staffing costs/total number recruited.
True False

42. Two of the key customers of the staffing system are managers and job applicants.
True False

43. There are few tools to facilitate the electronic processing of employee satisfaction surveys, so paper and pencil measures are usually preferable.
True False

Multiple Choice Questions

44. Which of the following statements is not an important step in staffing process evaluations?
A. Mapping out the intended process.
B. Identifying deviations from the intended process.
C. The norm is for organizations to conduct validation studies.
D. Correction actions should be planned to eliminate deviations.

45. Which of the following best fits the description of a staffing flowchart?
A. it shows the distance from staffing to strategic operational concerns
B. it depicts the actual flow of staffing activities from vacancy to hire
C. it provides evidence of how staffing measures increase performance directly
D. it is a physical model of staffing using flows to show movement

More Questions are Included…

BUS 335 WEEK 9 QUIZ 8 CHAPTER 11,12

BUS 335 WEEK 9 QUIZ 8 CHAPTER 11,12

Follow below link to get this tutorial:

http://essaysbay.com/product/bus-335-week-9-quiz-8-chapter-1112/

SUPPORT@ESSAYSBAY.COM

BUS 335 WEEK 9 QUIZ 8 CHAPTER 11,12

True / False Questions
1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient.
True False

2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores.
True False

3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor.
True False

4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor’s chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants.
True False

5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not.
True False

6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be.
True False

7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors.
True False

8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact.
True False

9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice.
True False

10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor.
True False

11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high.
True False

12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small.
True False

13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees.
True False

14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently.
True False

15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism.
True False

16. If you are using the “economic gains formula,” and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase.
True False

17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is “cost per applicant”.
True False

18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account.
True False

19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients.
True False

20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor’s ________.
A. validity coefficient
B. practical significance
C. sign
D. statistical significance

22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor “adds value” to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____.
A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction
B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient
C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors
D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency

23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________.
A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not
B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is
C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very low
D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact

24. Validity refers to __________.
A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor
B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants
C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores
D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio

25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________.
A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect
B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used
C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact
D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought

26. Under which circumstances is “hiring success gain” likely to be optimal?
A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity
B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity
C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity
D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity

27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula?
A. Average tenure of employees.
B. Number of applicants.
C. Dollar value of job performance.
D. Cost per applicant.

28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________.
A. allow for calculating selection ratios
B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios
C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor’s base rate, selection ratio, and validity
D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels

29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______.
A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection
B. the economic gain from using random selection
C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance
D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient

Determining Assessment Scores
True / False Questions
30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process.
True False

31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant’s score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant’s total score.
True False

32. The “unit weighting” method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor.
True False

33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample.
True False

34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another.
A. multiple hurdles
B. Markov process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the above

36. The _________ method of determining an applicant’s score is based on the expert judgment of the manager.
A. multiple regression
B. clinical prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above

37. The _________ method of determining an applicant’s score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together.
A. multiple regression
B. clinical prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above

38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process.
A. multiple hurdles
B. Markov process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the above

Hiring Standards and Cut Scores
True / False Questions
39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity.
True False

40. In assessing cutoff scores, a “false negative” is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired.
True False

41. In assessing cutoff scores, a “false positive” is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired.
True False

42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job.
True False

43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired.
True False

44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover.
True False

45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups.
True False

More Questions are Included…

BUS 335 WEEK 5 QUIZ 4 CHAPTER 5,6

BUS 335 WEEK 5 QUIZ 4 CHAPTER 5,6

Follow below link to get this tutorial:

http://essaysbay.com/product/bus-335-week-5-quiz-4-chapter-56/

SUPPORT@ESSAYSBAY.COM

BUS 335 WEEK 5 QUIZ 4 CHAPTER 5,6

True / False Questions
1. Most organizational recruiting is done in-house.
True False

2. Organizations with low turnover rates will probably prefer to use internal recruitment agencies.
True False

3. Some organizations cooperate with one another during recruitment drives to minimize individual recruitment costs.
True False

4. A centralized approach to recruiting can ensure that policy is being interpreted consistently across business units.
True False

5. One advantage to centralized recruitment is that recruitment efforts may be undertaken in a more timely manner.
True False

6. It is typically easy to determine the number of contacts with applicants needed to fill a vacancy.
True False

7. One consistent finding in the research is that job seekers are more likely to find out about jobs through friends and family than they are through employment agencies.
True False

8. Research has shown that greater employer involvement with prospective applicants does little to improve the image of the organization.
True False

9. The practice of not charging the business unit may result in the business unit users not being concerned about minimizing recruitment costs.
True False

10. Applicant tracking systems make it possible to assess how many individuals are attracted and hired through each recruiting source.
True False

11. A recruitment guide is an informal set of principles suggesting, but not proscribing, how recruiting might proceed.
True False

12. Most recruiters receive a great deal of training.
True False

13. Research consistently shows that HR department employees make better recruiters than line managers.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
14. Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency?
A. it ensures consistency from opening to closing
B. it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
C. it is very inexpensive
D. all of the above

15. Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment?
A. duplications of effort are reduced
B. increased responsiveness to immediate needs
C. closer links to day-to-day operations
D. decreased costs in the centralized HR function

16. Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition?
A. quantity of labor to be hired
B. affirmative action compliance methods
C. list of selection methods to be used
D. all of the above

17. Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets?
A. website development and administration
B. costs of signing bonuses
C. time spent making personal contacts and following up with candidates
D. bringing candidates onsite

18. A recruiting requisition is ________________________.
A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool
C. a formal document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection

19. A recruitment guide is ________________________.
A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool
C. a document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection

20. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter has ________________________.
A. strong interpersonal skills
B. knowledge about the organization
C. extensive knowledge about the job
D. all of the above

Strategy Development
True / False Questions
21. With an open recruitment approach, organizations cast a wide net to identify potential applicants for specific job openings.
True False

22. The growth of Web-based recruiting means that many employers have found that open recruiting yields too few applicants.
True False

23. Targeted recruiting is done to find applicants with specific characteristics pertinent to person/job or person/organization match.
True False

24. Targeted recruiting is a poor choice for diversity-conscious firms.
True False

25. Targeted recruitment can achieve the same ends of inclusion as open recruitment, though by a different mechanism.
True False

26. It is usually advised that a company either adopt open or targeted recruitment across the board for all employees.
True False

27. One shortcoming of targeted recruitment is that by seeking out one group, one may exclude another from the same consideration.
True False

28. Research indicates that recruits are bored by overly simple web-based recruiting systems and they prefer a more elaborate design.
True False

29. Research shows that candidates prefer organizational Web sites that allow them to customize the information that they receive.
True False

30. Most estimates suggest that employee referrals are one of the least commonly used recruiting methods.
True False

31. Organizations sometimes use social networking sites like LinkedIn and Facebook to find job candidates.
True False

32. One major problem with Internet-based recruiting is that there are too few applications for most jobs.
True False

33. Niche employment websites are a popular method for finding recruits with a specific set of skills.
True False

34. Research has shown that organization websites and electronic bulletin boards are seen as more informative and credible than campus recruiting.
True False

35. Executive search firms are usually extremely expensive.
True False

36. In a small number of states, there are employment or job service options to help employers find candidates for jobs.
True False

37. Outplacement firms offer employees who are losing their jobs assistance finding new jobs in the form of counseling and training to help facilitate a good person/job match.
True False

38. If a recruiting search is too narrow, the organization will likely be engaged in a long-term process of looking.
True False

39. There has not been any research on the effectiveness of various recruitment sources.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
40. What are the two major strategies for recruiting?
A. open or shut
B. proactive or pensive
C. open or targeted
D. general or targeted

41. Which of the following is an advantage of open recruiting?
A. it is seen as more fair
B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants
C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered
D. both a and b

42. Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting?
A. it is seen as more fair
B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants
C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered
D. both a and b

43. Which situation most strongly calls for open recruitment?
A. a small number of applicants are required
B. specific skill sets are needed
C. pre-entry qualifications are not important
D. the organization is downsizing

44. Which situation most strongly calls for targeted recruitment?
A. a small number of applicants are required
B. specific skill sets are needed
C. pre-entry qualifications are not important
D. the organization is downsizing

45. The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called __________.
A. targeted recruitment
B. job requirements matrix recruitment
C. geographic area recruitment
D. strategic recruitment

46. Which of the following is an appropriate use of targeted recruiting?
A. Using non-traditional sources to enhance minority hiring.
B. Broadening the geographical recruitment area to control selection costs.
C. Eliminating recruitment sources to minimize yield ratios.
D. Using demographics to avoid certain classes of potential applicants.

47. Which of the following are not components of a strong corporate recruiting website?
A. exciting flash graphics presentations of opportunities
B. detailed information on career opportunities
C. résumé builders
D. self-assessment inventories

48. A study of the best practices of the Web sites of 140 high-profile organizations indicates that one of the features of a high-impact Web site is ____________.
A. a job cart function
B. personal search engines
C. self-assessment inventories
D. all of the above

49. Which of the following statements about using employee referrals is true?
A. those recruited by employee referrals tend to be less committed
B. those recruited by referrals are more qualified and committed
C. referral programs may be effective, but few are hired in this way
D. over 80% of organizations provide incentives for referrals

50. Which of the following statements is false?
A. many employment sites now offer the ability to create and approve job requisitions online
B. employment sites sometimes cross-list jobs with local newspapers
C. at any given time there are millions of résumés available on employment websites
D. none of these statements is false

More Questions are Included…

BUS 335 WEEK 4 QUIZ 3 CHAPTER 4

BUS 335 WEEK 4 QUIZ 3 CHAPTER 4

Follow below link to get this tutorial:

http://essaysbay.com/product/bus-335-week-4-quiz-3-chapter-4-2/

SUPPORT@ESSAYSBAY.COM

BUS 335 WEEK 4 QUIZ 3 CHAPTER 4

True / False Questions
1. In most modern organizations, jobs are largely well established and change little over time.
True False

2. Job analysis is the process of studying jobs in order to gather, analyze, synthesize, and report information about job requirements.
True False

3. Competency based job analysis seeks to identify and describe the specific tasks, KSAOs, and job context for a particular job.
True False

4. The traditional way of designing a job is to identify and define its elements and tasks precisely and then incorporate them into a job description.
True False

5. Traditional job design is marked by formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions and specifications, and well-defined relationships between jobs.
True False

6. Changes to jobs have become so radical that the concept of “jobs” is no longer a useful concept in most organizations.
True False

7. Advances in technology are one of the major reasons for changes in jobs.
True False

8. A job family is a grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions.
True False

9. The smallest unit into which work can be divided without analyzing separate motions, movements, and mental processes is called an element.
True False

10. Many small-business owners, general managers of start-up strategic business units, and top management members perform flexible jobs that are difficult to classify in traditional job analysis.
True False

11. Measures of engagement reflect specific skills sets that are readily measured through job analysis.
True False

12. Competency analysis is one way to incorporate engagement into job analysis.
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
13. A job description is best defined as _____.
A. the organization’s framework for AA compliance
B. the organization’s indicator of tasks required for each job
C. the organizations principle job training tool
D. the organization’s performance appraisal instrument

14. Which of the following are elements of traditional job design?
A. formal organization charts
B. clear and precise job descriptions
C. well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
D. all of the above

15. Which of the following is a good definition of a job family?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimension

16. Which of the following is a good definition of a job category?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

17. Which of the following is a good definition of a job?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

18. Which of the following is a good definition of a task?
A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job
B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function
C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation
D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions

19. Measures of engagement reflect _________.
A. task characteristics that are readily accommodated by job analysis
B. the degree to which an employee helps co-workers voluntarily
C. the degree to which an employee identifies with and has enthusiasm for his or her work
D. the employee’s tendency to reject alternative employment offers when given

Job Requirements Job Analysis
True / False Questions
20. Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job.
True False

21. Job analysis is a primary input and support activity for most functional staffing activities.
True False

22. Team-based jobs lend themselves particularly well to job requirements job analysis.
True False

23. The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs.
True False

24. Task statements are objectively written descriptions of the behaviors or work activities engaged in by employees in order to perform the job.
True False

25. Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she does, what is produced, and what is used.
True False

26. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description.
True False

27. The term “task dimension” has the same basic meaning as “duties” or “areas of responsibility.”
True False

28. Sentence analysis is used to develop competencies.
True False

29. Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as “supports,” “assists,” and “handles.”
True False

30. It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or importance to overall job performance.
True False

31. Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks.
True False

32. Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks.
True False

33. The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job’s “context.”
True False

34. Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance content validity and assess reliability.
True False

35. It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts.
True False

36. Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills.
True False

37. In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is performed.
True False

38. Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and relatively short cycle times for job tasks.
True False

39. Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process.
True False

40. When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant.
True False

41. In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external consultants rather than internal staff.
True False

42. A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements.
True False

43. Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients.
True False

44. The O*Net contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job characteristics.
True False

45. The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires.
True False

46. The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional opportunities.
True False

More Questions are Included…